Get Solved Liberty University AVIA 340 Final 

Get Solved Liberty University AVIA 340 Final

Set 1

1. The HIWAS broadcast area is defined as the area within 50 NM of HIWAS outlets.
2. The moist adiabatic lapse rate can vary between approximately 1.2 °C per 1,000 feet to 3 °C per 1,000 feet.
3. ______ are raw weather data collected by sensors such as weather radar or satellite.
4. While in flight, the radiosonde instrument (in weather balloons) transmits:
5. A high-pressure system is anticyclonic.
6. All altitude references in a PIREP are MSL unless otherwise noted.
7. Water is more resistant to temperature changes than land.
8. The standard sea level temperature is 59 degrees Celsius.
9. High-density altitude is a hazard since it reduces aircraft performance in which ways?
10. Precipitation formation requires:
11. Which of the following can happen if an aircraft flies into a volcanic ash cloud?
12. A __________ consists of a group of cells at various stages of their life cycle.
13. A __________ briefing provides a complete weather picture and is the most detailed of all briefings.
14. Sea breezes usually blow on relatively calm, sunny, summer days.
15. Greenhouse warming is most enhanced during ____ nights.
16. A _____________ chart shows the distribution of sea level pressure, including the positions of highs, lows, ridges, and troughs, and the location and character of fronts and various boundaries, such as drylines, outflow boundaries, and sea breeze fronts.
17. A gust is a fluctuation of wind speed with variations of 20 knots or more between peaks and lulls.
18. Which form of vertical motion occurs when the cold, denser air wedges under the warm, less dense air, plowing it upward, and/or the warmer air rides up and over the colder air?
19. Pressure is the ratio of any quantity to the volume or area it occupies.
20. The FAA does not approve or qualify Internet providers of aviation weather.
21. The highest quantities of super-cooled liquid water content (SLWC) can be found in cumuliform clouds.
22. Assuming constant mass and pressure, an air parcel with a higher temperature is ____ dense than an air parcel with a lower temperature.
23. The National Environmental Satellite, Data, and Information Service (NESDIS) provides data to the National Weather Service.
24. Weather is the atmosphere’s response to unequal rates of radiational heating and cooling across the surface of the Earth and within its atmosphere.
25. A _____ is an elongated area of relatively low atmospheric pressure.
26. An ARTCC is a facility established to provide air traffic control (ATC) service to aircraft operating on visual flight rules (VFR) flight plans within controlled airspace, principally during the en route phase of flight.
27. The atmosphere always contains some water vapor in amounts varying from trace to about four percent by volume. As water vapor content increases, the other gases decrease proportionately.
28. In what part of the atmosphere are meteors found?
29. A ________ is a line connecting points of equal or constant pressure.
30. Local winds include:
31. 500 millibars is equivalent to 10,000 feet (based on standard temperatures).
32. Friction force magnitude is directly proportional to wind speed.
33. A mountain obscuration is a condition in which mountains or mountain ridges are obscured due to clouds, precipitation, smoke, or other obscurations.
34. Density altitude is the pressure altitude corrected for temperature deviations from the standard atmosphere
35. Which of the following are considered high-level clouds?
36. Stable air suppresses vertical motion while unstable air enhances it.
37. Which of the following is true regarding convective turbulence:
38. _______ is the state of a column of air in the atmosphere when its lapse rate of temperature is less than the moist adiabatic lapse rate.
39. FSSs provide:
40. Which of the following is true about Clear Air Turbulence (CAT):

Set 2

1. Weather is the most common reason for air traffic delays and re-routings.
2. Precipitation formation requires:
3. Advection fog is generally a nighttime occurrence and often does not dissipate until after sunrise.
4. Mountain waves can only extend up to 100 miles downwind from the mountain range.
5. A PIREP listed as UUA means it is:
6. Structural icing destroys the smooth flow of air, increasing drag while decreasing the ability of the airfoil to create lift.
7. 500 millibars are equivalent to 10,000 feet (based on standard temperatures).
8. Diurnal temperature variation is the property of the ambient air that either enhances or suppresses the vertical motion of air parcels and determines which type of clouds and precipitation a pilot will encounter.
9. Which of the following is true about Clear Air Turbulence (CAT):
10. Friction force magnitude is directly proportional to wind speed.
11. All altitude references in a PIREP are MSL unless otherwise noted.
12. High-level clouds that form above 20,000 feet and are usually composed of ice crystals are known as ______ clouds.
13. Stable air suppresses vertical motion while unstable air enhances it.
14. Assuming constant mass and pressure, an air parcel with a higher temperature is ____ dense than an air parcel with a lower temperature.
15. The directional variability for wind direction in a METAR is coded in a clockwise direction and consists of the extremes of the wind directions separated by an “X.”
16. Density altitude is the pressure altitude corrected for temperature deviations from the standard atmosphere.
17. Assuming constant mass and temperature, an air parcel with higher pressure is denser than an air parcel with lower pressure.
18. This type of briefing should be obtained prior to the departure of any flight and should be used during flight planning.
19. Pressure is the ratio of any quantity to the volume or area it occupies.
20. ____________ occurs when there is a shallow layer aloft with above-freezing temperatures and with a deep layer of below-freezing air based at the surface.
21. Sea breezes usually blow on relatively calm, sunny, summer days.
22. Which of the following is true regarding convective turbulence:
23. Frontal systems point in the opposite direction of frontal movement.
24. The FAA does not approve or qualify Internet providers of aviation weather.
25. A _____ is an elongated area of relatively low atmospheric pressure.
26. Coded and/or plain language information elaborating on data in the body may be appended to the end of the METAR as “notes.”
27. In what part of the atmosphere are meteors found?
28. Which circulation is a low-latitude air movement toward the Equator that, with heating, rises vertically with poleward movement in the upper atmosphere? This circulation forms a convection cell that dominates tropical and subtropical climates.
29. The National Weather Service provides weather data, forecasts, and warnings for only the United States.
30. A __________ briefing provides a complete weather picture and is the most detailed of all briefings.
31. Propagation is the component of storm motion due to individual cells moving with the average wind throughout the vertical depth of the cumulonimbus cloud.
32. Which of the following would not be listed in a SIGMET:
33. _______ is the state of a column of air in the atmosphere when its lapse rate of temperature is less than the moist adiabatic lapse rate.
34. The shortest day of the year is known as the ____.
35. Clouds form in the atmosphere as a result of condensation of water vapor in rising currents of air.
36. Using the Celsius to Fahrenheit conversion formula, what temperature is equivalent to 30 degrees Celsius?
37. A ______ briefing is a good source of flight planning information that can influence decisions regarding the route of flight, altitude, and ultimately the “go, no-go” decision.
38. Sublimation is the phase transition by which vapor (a gas) is changed into a liquid.
39. Which air mass classification is defined by these properties? A relatively shallow cool to cold air mass develops over high latitudes.
40. The ATCSCC’s main mission is to provide commercial aviation with the fastest, most fuel-efficient route.
41. In 250-300 words, explore one topic in this course that you found most useful to your aviation career. Is this topic a hazard in aviation? Why has learning about the topic helped you in your career?

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